Multiple choice questions

Turn to page 318 for the answers.

1 The dental formula in sheep is: A 2(incisors 4/4, premolars 3/3,

molars 3/3)

B 2(incisors 0/4, premolars 3/3, molars 3/3)

C 2(incisors 0/4, premolars 4/4, molars 3/3)

D 2(incisors 0/4, premolars 3/3, molars 4/4)

E 2(incisors 0/4, premolars 3/3, molars 2/2)

2 Which one of the following assays is the most specific test for confirmation of chronic liver toxicity in sheep?

A Kidney copper concentration B Liver copper concentration C Serum copper concentration D Plasma copper concentration

E Serum AST concentration

3 Sudden onset tetraparesis in

a 5-day-old lamb is most likely caused by which one of the following conditions?

A Muscular dystrophy

B Infection of the atlanto-occipital joint

C Cervical spinal abscess

D Cerebellar hypoplasia

E White muscle disease

4 A 10-day-old collapsed 40 kg (88 lb) calf with a history of profuse diarrhoea requires how much bicarbonate to successfully correct the acidaemia?

A 20 mEq

B 50 mEq

C 100 mEq

D 200 mEq

E 400 mEq

5 The conception rate in a flock of healthy sheep should be in the region of:

A 50%

B 60%

C 70%

D 80%

E 90%

6 The target barren rate in a flock of healthy sheep after a 5-week service period should be:

A 4%

C Brainstem dysfunction is characterised by:

A Multiple cranial nerve deficits

B Head tilt and loss of balance

C Ataxia and dysmetria

D Blindness and altered behaviour

E Tetraparesis

27 Which needle length and gauge should be selected for lumbar CSF sampling in a 70 kg (155 lb) ewe?

A 25 mm 21 gauge

B 25 mm 19 gauge

C 40 mm 21 gauge

D 40 mm 19 gauge

E 60 mm 16 gauge

28 Which cell type is found in CSF following destruction of cerebral tissue?

A Macrophages

B Neutrophils

C Eosinophils

D Lymphocytes

E Red blood cells

29 A polymorphonuclear intrathecal inflammatory response is most likely to be found in which of the following conditions?

A Listeriosis

B Sarcocystosis

C Coenurosis D Brain abscess

E Bacterial meningoencephalitis

30 Swayback is associated with low status of which trace element in the dam and/or growing lamb?

A Selenium

B Cobalt

C Copper

D Iodine

E Calcium

31 Which disease of weaned lambs is characterised by blindness, initial depression and aimless wandering, dorsiflexion of the neck, progressing rapidly to hyperexcitability, seizures and opisthotonus, but with a good response to thiamine.

A Polioencephalomalacia

B Focal symmetrical encephalomalacia

Listeriosis

Bacterial meningoencephalitis Lead poisoning

At necropsy, which disease causes emission of a bright white autofluoresence when cut sections of the brain are viewed under ultraviolet light?

Lead poisoning

Focal symmetrical encephalomalacia Listeriosis

Bacterial meningoencephalitis Polioencephalomalacia

A large number of weaned lambs fed high levels of concentrates show depression and bilateral lack of menace response but not hyperaesthesia, nystagmus, dorsiflexion of the neck or opisthotonus.

Chronic copper poisoning Selenium toxicity

Urea poisoning

Bacterial meningoencephalitis most commonly affects lambs aged:

2- 3 days

4-7 days

1- 2 weeks

2- 4 weeks

2-4 months

Coenurus cerebralis is the larval stage of which tapeworm?

Taenia multiceps

Taenia hydatigena

C Echinococcus granulosus

D Monezia expansa

E Cysticercus tenuicollis

36 Sarcocystis species are obligate two-host parasites; the two potentially pathogenic microcyst species in sheep (S. arieticanis and S. tenella) have:

A A sheep-dog cycle

B A sheep-badger cycle

C A sheep-cat cycle

D A sheep-deer cycle

E A sheep-sheep cycle

37 Listeriosis is primarily a winter­spring disease most commonly, but not exclusively, associated with:

A Silage feeding; less alkaline pH of spoiled silage (pH 5.0) increases risk

C Feeding mouldy hay

D Access to poultry manure

E Feeding high-grain rations

38 Listeric encephalitis causes a localised infection of the brainstem that occurs when:

A L. monocytogenes ascends the facial nerve

B L. monocytogenes ascends the optic nerve

C L. monocytogenes ascends the trigeminal nerve

D Haematogenous spread of

L. monocytogenes from the gut

E L. monocytogenes ascends the eustachian tube

39 Pregnancy toxaemia can most reliably be confirmed by:

A Serum 3-OH butyrate concentration >5.0 mmol/l (52.5 mg/dl)

B Serum glucose concentration 1.0 mmol/l (28 mg/dl)

D BUN concentration >10 mmol/l (28 mg/dl)

E Serum fructosamine concentration >1.0 mmol/l (>0.18 mg/dl)

40 A pituitary tumour would most likely present with which of the following collection of neurological signs?

A Multiple bilateral cranial nerve deficits, especially V and VII

B Bilateral cranial nerve II and III deficits

C Head tilt

D Ataxia

E Hypermetria

41 A spinal lesion causing reduced forelimb reflexes (lower motor neuron signs) and increased hindlimb reflexes (upper motor neuron signs) would be present at:

A C1-C5

B C6-T2

C T3-L2

D L4-S2

E S1-S3

42 Footrot in sheep is caused by:

A Dichelobacter nodosus

B A spirochaete

C Fusobacterium necrophorum

D Bacteroides nodosus

E Trueperella pyogenes

43 Whole flock injection with which antibiotic has successfully eradicated footrot from sheep flocks?

A Oxytetracycline

B Tilmicosin

C Amoxycillin

D Penicillin

E Gamithromycin

44 In sheep, infection usually gains entry to the distal interphalangeal (pedal) joint:

A Haematogenously

B From a punctured sole

C Extension from an interdigital lesion

D Associated with footrot

E Direct extension of a contagious ovine digital dermatitis lesion

45 An infected distal interphalangeal (pedal) joint is best treated by:

A A prolonged course of antibiotics B Digit amputation under intravenous regional anaesthesia

C Digit amputation under a ring block

D Lavage and ankylosis

E Culling the sheep

46 Infectious arthritis with high morbidity and moderate to severe lameness typically affecting growing lambs aged 6 weeks to

4 months is most likely caused by which of the following organisms?

A Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae B Streptococcus dysgalactiae

C Staphylococcus aureus D Streptococcus agalactiae

E Fusobacterium necrophorum

47 For diagnostic purposes in suspected cases of infectious polyarthritis, the best samples to collect are:

A Arthrocentesis samples from acute cases prior to antibiotic treatment

B Arthrocentesis samples from treated cases that have failed to recover with antibiotic therapy

C Synovial membrane at necropsy from two or three severely lame lambs that have failed to recover with antibiotic therapy

D Synovial membrane at necropsy from two or three severely lame lambs that have not received any antibiotic therapy

E Samples of pannus from two or three severely lame lambs that have failed to recover

48 The best antibiotic therapy for erysipelas polyarthritis is:

A Ceftiofur for 3 consecutive days

B Three consecutive days of marbofloxacin

C A single long-acting injection of oxytetracycline

D Penicillin (44,000 iu/kg once daily) for at least 5 consecutive days

E Amoxycillin/clavulanic acid for at least 5 consecutive days

49 In obstructive urolithiasis in adult rams, high urinary back pressure within the bladder most commonly causes:

A Bladder rupture

B Hydroureters and bilateral hydronephrosis

C Kidney rupture

D Uroperitoneum

E Rupture of the penis

50 Ulcerative posthitis (sheath rot) is caused by which of the following bacteria?

A Trueperella pyogenes

B Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

C Corynebacterium renale

D Escherichia coli

E Fusobacterium necrophorum

51 Caseous lymphadentitis is characterised by abscessation of which lymph node?

A Parotid

B Mesenteric

C Mediastinal

D Deep inguinal

E Popliteal

52 Which of the following products provides the longest protection against flystrike?

A High cis cypermethrin pour-on preparations

B Cyromazine pour-on preparation

C Dicyclanil pour-on preparation

D Ivermectin injection

E Diazinon dips

53 Which of the bacteria listed below is the most common cause of gangrenous mastitis in sheep?

A Bibersteinia trehalosi

B Pasteurella multocida

C Mannheimia haemolytica

D Escherichia coli

E Streptococcus uberis

54 The birth of weakly lambs with markedly swollen thyroid glands (goitre) suggests a deficiency

of which trace element during gestation?

A Cobalt

B Copper

C Selenium

D Manganese

E Iodine

55 Which of the bacteria listed below is the most common cause of gangrenous mastitis in cows?

A Staphylococcus aureus

B Pasteurella multocida

C Mannheimia haemolytica

D Escherichia coli

E Streptococcus uberis

56 The conception rate in a healthy beef herd should be in the region of:

A 50%

B 60%

C 70%

D 80%

E 90%

57 Caudal analgesia in a cow is achieved after sacrococcygeal extradural injection of:

A 1 ml of 2% lidocaine solution

B 2 ml of 2% liocaine solution

C 3 ml of 2% liocaine solution

D 4 ml of 2% lidocaine solution

E 5 ml of 2% lidocaine solution

A 45 kg (100 lb) calf should ingest how much colostrum within the first 2-6 hours of life?

0.5 litres

1 litre

2 litres

3 litres

5 litres

Marked free fluid accumulation (transudate) within the abdominal cavity in an individual adult cow is most likely caused by:

Liver abscesses

Right-sided heart failure Paratuberculosis

Intestinal adenocarcinoma Protein-losing nephropathy

A serum albumin concentration of 22 g/l (2.2 g/dl) and globulin concentration of 65 g/l (6.5 g/dl) would be most consistent with which one of the following conditions?

Coliform mastitis Vagus indigestion Paratuberculosis

Chronic suppurative pneumonia Chronic parasitic gastroenteritis

Which needle length and gauge should be selected for lumbar CSF sampling in a 40 kg (88 lb) calf with suspected bacterial meningoencephalitis?

25 mm 23 gauge

25 mm 20 gauge

40 mm 21 gauge

40 mm 19 gauge

60 mm 16 gauge

Middle ear infection in

2- 6-month-old calves is most often caused by which one of the following bacteria?

Bibersteinia trehalosi

Pasteurella multocida

Mannheimia haemolytica Mycoplasma bovis

Histophilus somni

Bacterial meningoencephalitis most commonly affects calves aged:

1-2 days

3- 7 days

1- 2 weeks

2- 4 weeks

2-4 months

In dairy cows, infection usually gains entry to the distal interphalangeal (pedal) joint:

Haematogenously

From a sole ulcer

From an interdigital lesion

From a sole abscess

By direct extension of a digital dermatitis lesion

Congenital dwarfism (congenital joint laxity and dwarfism) is associated with low status of which trace element in the dam during gestation? Selenium

Cobalt

Copper

Iodine

Manganese

66 Calf diphtheria is caused by which of the following bacteria?

A Trueperella pyogenes

B Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

C Staphylococcus aureus

D Escherichia coli

E Fusobacterium necrophorum

67 The best antibiotic therapy for chronic suppurative pneumonia in adult dairy cows is:

A Ceftiofur for 3 consecutive days

B Three consecutive days of marbofloxacin

C A single long-acting injection of gamithromycin

D Penicillin once daily for at least 30 consecutive days

E AmoxycillinZclavulanic acid for at least 5 consecutive days

68 Basillar empyema would most likely present with which of the following collection of neurological signs?

A Multiple bilateral cranial deficits, especially II, III, V and VII

B Bilateral cranial nerve X and XII deficits

C Head tilt and Horner's syndrome D Ataxia and hindlimb weakness

E Hypermetria, wide-base stance and preservation of strength

69 In cattle, the liver can readily be visualised ultrasongraphically from:

A One-third the way down the 9th to 12th intercostal spaces on the right side

B One-third the way down the 9th to 12th intercostal spaces on the left side

C One-third the way down the 6th to 8th intercostal spaces on the right side

D One-third the way down the 6th to 8th intercostal spaces on the left side

E The ventral midline immediately caudal to the xiphisternum

70 Peritoneal sampling from a cow with traumatic reticulitis will typically reveal a sample with:

A Normal protein and white cell concentrations

B A low protein concentration but increased white cell count comprised almost exclusively of neutrophils.

C A high protein concentration but low white cell count

D A high protein concentration and increased white cell count comprised almost exclusively of lymphocytes

E A high protein concentration and increased white cell count comprised almost exclusively of neutrophlils

71 Manual transrectal examination of a dairy cow identifies a blind- ended 20 cm diameter viscus extending into the pelvis.

A Caecal distension

B Abomasal volvulus

C Torsion of the small intestine

D Right-sided distension of the abomasums

E Vagus indigestion

72 Enterotoxigenic E. coli typically affects calves at what age?

A 1-3 days old

B 4-7 days old

C 7-14 days old

D 14-21 days old

E >21 days old

73 Rotavirus diarrhoea typically affects calves at what age?

A 1-3 days old

B 4-7 days old

C 7-14 days old

D 14-21 days old

E >21 days old

74 Diarrhoea caused by Salmonella serotypes typically affects calves at what age?

A 1-3 days old

B 4-7 days old

C 7-14 days old

D 14-21 days old

E >21 days old

75 Coccidiosis affecting calves at pasture is most commonly caused by which one of the following Eimeria species?

A E. zuernii

B E. bovis

C E. alabamensis

D E. crandallis

E E. ovinoidalis

76 At what stage during gestation does bovine viral diarrhoea virus infection of the fetus cause congenital abnormalities?

A Between 30 and 60 days

B Between 60 and 90 days

C Between 90 and 150 days

D Between 150 and 200 days

E Between 200 and 250 days

77 Malignant catarrhal fever in cattle necessitates contact with which species?

A Badgers

B Sheep

C Ticks

D Pigs

E Midges

Answers to multiple choice questions